The Irony of Sola Scriptura

The apostles did not practice sola scriptura. They did however regard their oral tradition as carrying equal weight with their written tradition.

Catholic View = written equal to oral

Protestant View = written alone.

Doesn't it strike you as ironic that it is the Catholic position that is found in scripture?

Are you part of the 'All over the map' denomination?

What denomination did I belong to as a protestant? I was one of those protestants who would say "I am just a christian" or "I am non-denominational". I would usually say that both Calvin and Wesley are right regarding the doctrine of predestination, but they are just talking past each other. So if you were to ask me where I stood on this doctrine, I would say, "somewhere in the middle".

Of course as time went on I began to realize that by saying "I am non-denominational" that I was actually putting myself into a denomination. Get enough of us doing the same thing and we will start to be recognized as a category.

As a catholic I have been trying to actually categorize what I was. In the least amount of words, how would I describe myself? Well seriously I would describe myself as having been, "all over the map". I borrowed from various famous non-catholics such as Calvin, Luther and Wesley and what ever else "seemed" to make sense to me.

Which leads me to distinguish between two types of protestants: - Those who are attempting to follow systematic theology and those who are not. Those who are not, could be said to be 'all over the map'.

So I would say that my denomination was 'all over the map'.

How did Jesus practice sola scriptura?

Many protestants will readily admit that sola scriptura was not practiced in the first century. But there are still some protestants who argue that Jesus practiced sola scriptura. Their argument looks something like: Jesus never appealed to any other authority except for scripture.

How could Jesus practice sola scriptura while acknowledging that the Old Testament was not all that there is to the word of God?

What is your understanding of Implied Doctrine?

Does something have to be explicitly stated before you accept it? Or do you find that it being present in scripture, implicitly to be sufficient to qualify it as "biblical"?